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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: Security+
Exam Code: SY0-401
Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam
Total Questions: 1776 Q&As
Updated on: Apr 13, 2017

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Topics include:

  • Comparing viruses, worms, and Trojans
  • Understanding backdoors and logic bombs
  • Defending against denial of service and password attacks
  • Preventing insider threats
  • Detecting social engineering attacks
  • Preventing wireless eavesdropping
  • Understanding cross-site scripting
  • Preventing SQL injection
  • Deterring attacks
  • Securing your network
  • Scanning for and assessing threats

SY0-401 pdf

♥♥Flydymps Latest and Most Accurate CompTIA SY0-401 PDF Exam Q&As  ♥♥

Question No : 28  Ann, a technician, is attempting to establish a remote terminal session to an end user’s
computer using Kerberos authentication, but she cannot connect to the destination
machine. Which of the following default ports should Ann ensure is open?
A. 22
B. 139
C. 443
D. 3389
Answer: D
Explanation:
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389.

 

Question No : 29  A security administrator is segregating all web-facing server traffic from the internal network
and restricting it to a single interface on a firewall. Which of the following BEST describes
this new network?
A. VLAN
B. Subnet
C. VPN
D. DMZ
Answer: D
Explanation:
A DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical
or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing services
to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an
additional layer of security to an organization’s local area network (LAN); an external
network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of
the network. The name is derived from the term “demilitarized zone”, an area between
nation states in which military operation is not permitted.

 

Question No : 30  Which of the following BEST describes the weakness in WEP encryption?
A. The initialization vector of WEP uses a crack-able RC4 encryption algorithm.
Once enough packets are captured an XOR operation can be performed and the
asymmetric keys can be derived.
B. The WEP key is stored in plain text and split in portions across 224 packets of random
data.
Once enough packets are sniffed the IV portion of the packets can be removed leaving the
plain text key.
C. The WEP key has a weak MD4 hashing algorithm used.
A simple rainbow table can be used to generate key possibilities due to MD4 collisions.
D. The WEP key is stored with a very small pool of random numbers to make the cipher
text.

As the random numbers are often reused it becomes easy to derive the remaining WEP
key.
Answer: D
Explanation:SY0-401 pdf
WEP is based on RC4, but due to errors in design and implementation, WEP is weak in a
number of areas, two of which are the use of a static common key and poor implementation
of initiation vectors (IVs). When the WEP key is discovered, the attacker can join the
network and then listen in on all other wireless client communications.

 

 

Question No : 31  An administrator wants to establish a WiFi network using a high gain directional antenna
with a narrow radiation pattern to connect two buildings separated by a very long distance.
Which of the following antennas would be BEST for this situation?
A. Dipole
B. Yagi
C. Sector
D. Omni
Answer: B
Explanation:
A Yagi-Uda antenna, commonly known simply as a Yagi antenna, is a directional antenna
consisting of multiple parallel dipole elements in a line, usually made of metal rods. It
consists of a single driven element connected to the transmitter or receiver with a
transmission line, and additional parasitic elements: a so-called reflector and one or more
directors. The reflector element is slightly longer than the driven dipole, whereas the
directors are a little shorter. This design achieves a very substantial increase in the
antenna’s directionality and gain compared to a simple dipole.

 

 

Question No : 32  A database administrator contacts a security administrator to request firewall changes for a
connection to a new internal application. The security administrator notices that the new
application uses a port typically monopolized by a virus. The security administrator denies
the request and suggests a new port or service be used to complete the application’s task.
Which of the following is the security administrator practicing in this example?
A. Explicit deny
B. Port security
C. Access control lists
D. Implicit deny
Answer: C
Explanation:
Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the
entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router
continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the
end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit
entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted.

Question No : 33  When performing the daily review of the system vulnerability scans of the network Joe, the
administrator, noticed several security related vulnerabilities with an assigned vulnerability
identification number. Joe researches the assigned vulnerability identification number from
the vendor website. Joe proceeds with applying the recommended solution for identified
vulnerability.
Which of the following is the type of vulnerability described?
A. Network based
B. IDS
C. Signature based
D. Host based
Answer: C
Explanation:
A signature-based monitoring or detection method relies on a database of signatures or
patterns of known malicious or unwanted activity. The strength of a signature-based
system is that it can quickly and accurately detect any event from its database of
signatures.

 

 

Question No : 34 A security administrator must implement a wireless security system, which will require
users to enter a 30 character ASCII password on their accounts. Additionally the system
must support 3DS wireless encryption.
Which of the following should be implemented?
A. WPA2-CCMP with 802.1X
B. WPA2-PSK
C. WPA2-CCMP
D. WPA2-Enterprise
Answer: D
Explanation:
D: WPA-Enterprise is also referred to as WPA-802.1X mode, and sometimes just WPA (as
opposed to WPA-PSK), this is designed for enterprise networks and requires a RADIUS
authentication server. This requires a more complicated setup, but provides additional
security (e.g. protection against dictionary attacks on short passwords). Various kinds of
the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) are used for authentication. RADIUS can be
managed centrally, and the servers that allow access to a network can verify with a
RADIUS server whether an incoming caller is authorized. Thus the RADIUS server can
perform all authentications. This will require users to use their passwords on their user
accounts.
Drag and drop the correct protocol to its default port.

 

 


Question No : 35 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)

SY0-401 pdf

Answer:

SY0-401 pdf

SY0-401 pdf

FTP uses TCP port 21.
Telnet uses port 23.
SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP,
SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file
transfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). Secure FTP (SFTP) is a
secured alternative to standard File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
SMTP uses TCP port 25.
Port 69 is used by TFTP.
SNMP makes use of UDP ports 161 and 162.
References:SY0-401 pdf
Stewart, James Michael, CompTIA Security+ Review Guide, Sybex, Indianapolis, 2014, pp.
42, 45, 51

Question No : 36  A server is configured to communicate on both VLAN 1 and VLAN 12. VLAN 1
communication works fine, but VLAN 12 does not. Which of the following MUST happen
before the server can communicate on VLAN 12?
A. The server’s network switch port must be enabled for 802.11x on VLAN 12.
B. The server’s network switch port must use VLAN Q-in-Q for VLAN 12.
C. The server’s network switch port must be 802.1q untagged for VLAN 12.
D. The server’s network switch port must be 802.1q tagged for VLAN 12.
Answer: D
Explanation:
802.1q is a standard that defines a system of VLAN tagging for Ethernet frames. The
purpose of a tagged port is to pass traffic for multiple VLAN’s.
Incorrect Options:
A: 802.11x provides an authentication mechanism to devices wishing to attach to a LAN or
WLAN.
B: VLAN Q-in-Q allows multiple VLAN tags to be inserted into a single frame.
C: The purpose an untagged port is to accept traffic for a single VLAN only.
Reference:

 

 

Question No : 37  Which of the following would allow the organization to divide a Class C IP address range
into several ranges?
A. DMZ
B. Virtual LANs
C. NAT
D. Subnetting
Answer: D
Explanation:
Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into
smaller collections.

sy0-401 pdf

Security+ SY0-401 PDF Beta Questions

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30
Mar

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Server Infrastructure
Exam Name: Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure
Exam Code: 70-413
Total Questions: 206 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 23, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.lead2exam.com/70-413.html

This Lead2exam will train you for the complete Server 2012 infrastructure and is essentially for any IT professionals sitting the MS 70-413 exam. With that exam under your belt, you’ll be able to plan, configure, and implement the 70-413 exam Windows Server 2012 services such as server deployment, server virtualization, and network access and infrastructure.

  • Plan and deploy a server infrastructure
  • Design and implement network infrastructure services
  • Design and implement network access services
  • Design and implement an Active Directory infrastructure (logical)
  • Design and implement an Active Directory infrastructure (physical)

70-413 exam

Lead2exam Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-413 Exam Q&As 

Overview
Northwind Traders is a retail company.
The company has offices in Montreal and San Diego. The office in Montreal has 1,000 client computers. The office in San Diego has 100 computers. The
computers in the San Diego office are often replaced. The offices connect to each other by using a slow WAN link. Each office connects directly to the Internet.
Existing 70-413 exam Environment
Active Directory Environment
The network contains an Active Directory forest named northwindtraders.com. The forest contains two domains named northwindtraders.com and
west.northwindtraders.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
All client computers run Windows 7.
Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. The site in the Montreal office is named Site1. The site in the San Diego office is named Site2.
The forest contains four domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table

70-413 exam

DC1, DC2, and DC3 are writable domain controllers. R0DC1 is read-only domain controller (RODC). All DNS zones are Active Directory-integrated. All zones
replicate to all of the domain controllers.
All of the computers in the 70-413 exam San Diego office are configured to use RODC1 as their only DNS server.
The northwindtraders.com domain contains a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GP01 is applied to all of the users in the Montreal office.
All of the user accounts for the Montreal users are in the northwindtraders.com domain. All of the user accounts for the San Diego users are in the
west.northwindtraders.com domain.
Network Environment
Site1 contains the member servers in the northwindtraders.com domain shown in the following table

70-413 exam

Server1 connects to SAN storage that supports Offloaded Data Transfer (ODX). All virtual hard disks (VHDs) are stored on the SAN.
A web application named App1 is installed on Servers.
Server3 has a shared folder that contains 70-413 exam sales reports. The sales reports are read frequently by the users in both offices. The reports are generated automatically
once per week by an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system.
A perimeter network in the Montreal office contains two standalone servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

70-413 exam

The servers in the perimeter network are accessible from the Internet by using a domain name suffix of public.northwindtraders.com.
Each administrator has a 70-413 exam management computer that runs Windows 8.1.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Northwind Traders plans to implement the following changes:
On Server1, create four virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.

 

70-413 exam QUESTION 15
When configuring JMS Modules using the WebLogic Administration Console or WLST, the module information will be stored in:
A. <modulename> stanza in the weblogic-application.xml file.
B. <modulename> stanza in the config\config.xml file.
C. <domain>/config/jms/<modulename>-jms.xml file
D. <domain>/servers/<servername>/targets/jms/<modulename>_<servername>.xml
Correct Answer: C
70-413 exam QUESTION 16
What WLST best practice should you keep in mind before manipulating JMS MBeans?
A. Making sure that the WebLogic Domain is started before using WLST.
B. Use general, non-meaningful names.
C. Trap for Null MBean objects (such as servers, JMS Servers, modules).
D. Create your JMS sub-deployments before your JMS resources.
Correct Answer: C
70-413 exam QUESTION 17
Configuration Auditing provides data that is primarily intended for
A. Creating a list of configuration changes.
B. Creating a command journal to rerun after a failure.
C. Producing debug logs of console actions.
D. Recording WebLogic Server console login attempts.

Correct Answer: A
70-413 exam QUESTION 18
Scenario : Consider a production server deployment wherein the development team has no access to the production servers. The Administrative team owns the responsibility of deployments, upgrades and supporting the applications hosted on these servers. The decision was for a development and administrative team to use off-line and online WLST scripts to deploy and support the application. During debugging, if there is a need for the development team to review and recreate a similar server configuration, which one of the following approaches would you adopt?
A. Create a WLST off-line script using duplicateDomain and send it to the development team to recreate the server configuration.
B. Send all server configuration files and have them recreate the server configuration using WLST parse scripts.
C. Create a WebLogic Server domain template using WLST and send it to the development team to recreate the configuration.
D. Use the WebLogic admin console to save the domain configuration and send it to the development team.

Correct Answer: C
70-413 exam QUESTION 19
Scenario : Consider a b2b commerce application hosted on a WebLogic cluster with JMS messages being received, processed, and forwarded to external servers. The server log indicates a potential stuck thread problem where threads are continually getting stuck and JMX monitoring indicates a continuous backlog of pending messages that could be due to any of the in-flight messages, delayed messages, or messages being inhibited from delivery. To prevent all threads from getting stuck, which of the following approaches would you adopt?
A. Increase the StuckThreadsMaxTime setting and StuckThreadTimerInterval to change stuck thread monitoring parameters.
B. Configure a Work Manager shutdown trigger and have the server move to admin mode for further debugging outside of production.
C. Create a new Work Manager for the application that reports stuck threads, to prevent the default Work Manager from thread starvation.
D. Write a cron job to monitor threads and restart threads using a timer.
Correct Answer: B
70-413 exam QUESTION 20
Choose two recommended best practices when managing applications in a production environment:
A. Deploy applications and modules in an archive format (.ear, .jar, .war, and so forth).
B. Manage multiple deployment configurations using deployment plans, rather than multiple versions of the WebLogic Server deployment descriptor files.
C. Enable the auto-deploy feature in a production mode running environment.
D. Deploy an application to an Administration Server in a multiple-server domain in production mode.
Correct Answer: AB
70-413 exam QUESTION 21
An application deployed to a clustered server environment shows degraded performance with respect to database related calls and you have decided to capture the data about all the JDBC methods invoked including the arguments and return values without restarting the application or servers. Which three of the following would help in enabling the debugging dynamically? (Choose three)
A. Administration console
B. WLST (WebLogic Scripting Tool)
C. Java Client using JMX/WLST
D. Command line properties when starting the server

Correct Answer: ABC
70-413 exam QUESTION 22
In order to configure the Instrumentation, Harvester, and Watch and Notification components at the server level for the WebLogic Diagnostic Framework, what must you first create?
A. Application module
B. Diagnostic system module
C. Subsystem diagnostic module
D. WebLogic Diagnostic Framework Mbean

Correct Answer: B
70-413 exam QUESTION 23
How can you access the Node Manager to start and stop Managed Servers? Select three from the following options that are true.
A. Administration console
B. Node Manager’s console
C. JMX utilities with Admin Server running
D. WebLogic Scripting Tool commands
E. Managed Server’s console

Correct Answer: ACD

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Windows Server 2012
Exam Name: Administering Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-411
Total Questions: 234 Q&As
Last Updated: Mar 15, 2017
Published: September 17, 2012
Languages: English, Chinese (Simplified), French, German, Japanese, Portuguese (Brazil)
Audiences:IT professionals
Technology: Windows Server 2012 R2
Credit toward certification: MCP, MCSA, MCSE
Exam Infomation:http://www.testcos.com/70-411.html

MCSA 70-411 Sections

Deploy, manage and maintain servers 15% to 20%
Configure file and print servicestd> 15% to 20%
Configure network services and access 15% to 20%
Configure a Network Policy Server (NPS) infrastructure 10% to 15%
Configure and manage Active Directory 10% to 15%
Configure and manage Group Policy 15% to 20%

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Testcos Latest and Most Accurate 70-411 Exam Material Q&As(6-11)

70-411 exam Question No : 6 HOTSPOT – (Topic 0)  Your network contains a RADIUS server named Server1.
You install a new server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has
Network Policy Server (NPS) installed.
You need to ensure that all accounting requests for Server2 are forwarded to Server1.
On Server2, you configure a Connection Request Policy.
What else should you configure on Server2? 
To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam

 

70-411 exam Question No : 7 – (Topic 0)  Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain
contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the Network
Policy Server role service installed.
An administrator creates a RADIUS client template named Template1.
You create a RADIUS client named Client1 by using Template 1.
You need to modify the shared secret for Client1.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the Advanced settings of Template1.
B. Set the Shared secret setting of Template1 to Manual.
C. Clear Enable this RADIUS client for Client1.
D. Clear Select an existing template for Client1.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clear checkmark for Select an existing template in the new client wizard.
In New RADIUS Client, in Shared secret, do one of the following:
Bullet Ensure that Manual is selected, and then in Shared secret, type the strong password
that is also entered on the RADIUS client. Retype the shared secret in Confirm shared
secret.
70-411 exam

 70-411 exam

 

 

70-411 exam Question No : 8 – (Topic 0)
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run
Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy Server server ✑ ✑
role and the Remote Access server role installed. The domain contains a server named
Server2 that is configured as a RADIUS server.
Server1 provides VPN access to external users.
You need to ensure that all of the VPN connections to Server1 are logged to the RADIUS
server on Server2.
What should you run?
A. Add-RemoteAccessRadius -ServerNameServer1 -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled –
SharedSecret “Secret” -Purpose Accounting
B. Set-RemoteAccessAccounting -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled -AccountingOnOffMsg
Enabled
C. Add-RemoteAccessRadius -ServerName Server2 -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled –
SharedSecret “Secret” -Purpose Accounting
D. Set-RemoteAccessAccounting -EnableAccountingType Inbox -AccountingOnOffMsg
Enabled
Answer: C
Explanation:
Add-RemoteAccessRadius
Adds a new external RADIUS server for VPN authentication, accounting for DirectAccess
(DA) and VPN, or one-time password (OTP) authentication for DA.
AccountingOnOffMsg
Indicates the enabled state for sending of accounting on or off messages. The acceptable
values for this parameter are:
Enabled.
Disabled. This is the default value. This parameter is applicable only when the RADIUS server is being added for Remote
Access accounting.

70-411 exam Question No : 9 – (Topic 0)
Your network contains four Network Policy Server (NPS) servers named Server1, Server2,
Servers, and Server4.
Server1 is configured as a RADIUS proxy that forwards connection requests to a remote
Explanation: During the NPS proxy configuration process, you can create remote RADIUS
server groups and then add RADIUS servers to each group. To configure load balancing,
you must have more than one RADIUS server per remote RADIUS server group. While
adding group members, or after creating a RADIUS server as a group member, you can
access the Add RADIUS server dialog box to configure the following items on the Load
Balancing tab:
Priority. Priority specifies the order of importance of the RADIUS server to the NPS proxy
server. Priority level must be assigned a value that is an integer, such as 1, 2, or 3. The
lower the number, the higher priority the NPS proxy gives to the RADIUS server. For
example, if the RADIUS server is assigned the highest priority of 1, the NPS proxy sends
connection requests to the RADIUS server first; if servers with priority 1 are not available,
NPS then sends connection requests to RADIUS servers with priority 2, and so on. You
can assign the same priority to multiple RADIUS servers, and then use the Weight setting
to load balance between them.
Weight. NPS uses this Weight setting to determine how many connection requests to send
to each group member when the group members have the same priority level. Weight
setting must be assigned a value between 1 and 100, and the value represents a
percentage of 100 percent. For example, if the remote RADIUS server group contains two
members that both have a priority level of 1 and a weight rating of 50, the NPS proxy
forwards 50 percent of the connection requests to each RADIUS server.
Advanced settings. These failover settingsprovide a way for NPS to determine whether the
remote RADIUS server is unavailable. If NPS determines that a RADIUS server is
unavailable, it can start sending connection requests to other group members. With these
settings you can configure the number of seconds that the NPS proxy waits for a response
from the RADIUS server before it considers the request dropped; the maximum number of
dropped requests before the NPS proxy identifies the RADIUS server as unavailable; and
the number of seconds that can elapse between requests before the NPS proxy identifies
the RADIUS server as unavailable.
The default priority is 1 and can be changed from 1 to 65535. So changing server 2 and 3
to priority 10 is not the way to go.
 70-411 exam

 

70-411 exam Question No : 10 DRAG DROP – (Topic 0)
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain
controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains an organizational unit (OU) named OU1. OU1 contains an OU named
OU2. OU2 contains a user named user1.
User1 is the member of a group named Group1. Group1 is in the Users container.
You create five Group Policy objects (GPO). The GPOs are configured as shown in the
following table.
QQ截图20170321171456
The Authenticated Users group is assigned the default permissions to all of the GPOs.
There are no site-level GPOs.
You need to identify which three GPOs will be applied to User1 and in which order the
GPOs will be applied to User1.
Which three GPOs should you identify in sequence?
To answer, move the appropriate three GPOs from the list of GPOs to the answer area and
arrange them in the correct order.
70-411 exam

70-411 exam Question No : 11 – (Topic 0)
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
A network administrator creates a Group Policy central store.
After the central store is created, you discover that when you create new Group Policy
objects (GPOs), the GPOs do not contain any Administrative Templates.
You need to ensure that the Administrative Templates appear in new GPOs.
What should you do?
A. Add your user account to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
B. Configure all domain controllers as global catalog servers.
C. Copy files from %Windir%\Policydefimtions to the central store.
D. Modify the Delegation settings of the new GPOs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To take advantage of the benefits of .admx files, you must create a Central Store in the
SYSVOL folder on a domain controller. The Central Store is a file location that is checked
by the Group Policy tools. The Group Policy tools use any .admx files that are in the
Central Store. The files that are in the Central Store are later replicated to all domain
controllers in the domain.

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Exam Code: 2V0-620
Exam Name: vSphere 6 Foundations Beta
Updated: Mar 03, 2017
Q&As: 197
Exam Details Last Updated:1 September 2015
Duration: 115 minutes
Number of Questions: 65
Passing Score: 300
Validated Against: vSphere 6
Exam Languages: English
Format: Single and Multiple Choice, Non-Proctored, Online
Exam Informationhttp://www.pass4itsure.com/2V0-620.html
Features
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A comprehensive and detailed review of actual exam objectives covered in the real exam.
Review of objectives, study tips, plus advice on how to avoid common mistakes and hints on additional study resources.
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Pause, fast-forward, rewind and re-watch capabilities let you take full advantage of the content most important to you.
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2V0-620 pdf

Share some VMware 2V0-621 Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 11
Which two methods are recommended for managing the VMware Directory Service? (Choose two.)
A. Ualize the vmdir command.
B. Manage through the vSphere Web Client.
C. Manage using the VMware Directory Service.
D. Ualize the dc rep command.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
What are two sample roles that are provided with vCenter Server by default? (Choose two.)
A. Virtual machine User
B. Network Administrator
C. Content Library Administrator
D. Storage Administrator
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 13
Which three services can be enabled/disabled in the Security Profle for an ESXi host? (Choose three.)
A. CIM Server
B. Single Sign-On
C. Direct Console UI
D. Syslog Server
E. vSphere Web Access
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 14
An administrator would like to use the VMware Cerafcate Authority (VMCA) as an Intermediate Cerafcate
Authority (CA). The frst two steps performed are:
Replace the Root Cerafcate
Replace Machine Cerafcates (Intermediate CA)
Which two steps would need to be performed next? (Choose two.)
A. Replace Soluaon User Cerafcates (Intermediate CA)
B. Replace the VMware Directory Service Cerafcate (Intermediate CA)
C. Replace the VMware Directory Service Cerafcate
D. Replace Soluaon User Cerafcates
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 15
Which three opaons are available for ESXi Cerafcate Replacement? (Choose three.)
A. VMware Cerafcate Authority mode
B. Custom Cerafcate Authority mode
C. Thumbprint mode
D. Hybrid Deployment
E. VMware Cerafcate Endpoint Authority Mode
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 16
Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi 6.x host and users are restricted from logging into theDirect Console User Interface (DCUI).
Which two statements are true given this confguraaon? (Choose two.)
A. A user granted administraave privileges in the Excepaon User list can login.
B. A user defned in the DCUI.Access without administraave privileges can login.
C. A user defned in the ESXi Admins domain group can login.
D. A user set to the vCenter Administrator role can login.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 17
Strict Lockdown Mode has been enabled on an ESXi host.
Which acaon should an administrator perform to allow ESXi Shell or SSH access for users with
administrator privileges?
A. Grant the users the administrator role and enable the service.
B. Add the users to Excepaon Users and enable the service.
C. No acaon can be taken, Strict Lockdown Mode prevents direct access.
D. Add the users to vsphere.local and enable the service.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
A common root user account has been confgured for a group of ESXi 6.x hosts. Which two steps should
be taken to miagate security risks associated with this confguraaon? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the root user account from the ESXi host.
B. Set a complex password for the root account and limit its use.
C. Use ESXi Acave Directory capabiliaes to assign users the administrator role.
D. Use Lockdown mode to restrict root account access.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 19
An administrator wants to confgure an ESXi 6.x host to use Acave Directory (AD) to manage users and
groups. The AD domain group ESX Admins is planned for administraave access to the host. Which two
condiaons should be considered when planning this confguraaon? (Choose two.)
A. If administraave access for ESX Admins is not required, this setng can be altered.
B. The users in ESX Admins are not restricted by Lockdown Mode.
C. An ESXi host provisioned with Auto Deploy cannot store AD credenaals.
D. The users in ESX Admins are granted administraave privileges in vCenter Server.
Correct Answer: AC

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCDA
Exam Name: Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions
Exam Code: 200-310
Total Questions: 295 Q&As
Last Updated: Feb 22, 2017
Exam Information:http://www.lead2exam.com/200-310.html

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QUESTION 1
What information should be utilized to identify network applications that are running on an existing network infrastructure?
A. customer information
B. existing documentation
C. traffic analysis
D. external feedback
E. user feedback
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What are two benefits of a structured IPv4 addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. reduces routing table size
B. provides increased security
C. allows for address translation to be performed
D. improves manageability and troubleshooting
E. increases high availability
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Which IP address can be routed to cross the public Internet?
A. 10.31.1.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 172.32.1.1
D. 169.254.32.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices. What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a
private line failure?
A. floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum paths
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which interior routing protocol has the most preferable administrative distance by default?
A. RIP
B. OSPF
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You design a network with the following network addresses:
192.168.168.0
192.168.169.0
192.168.170.0
192.168.171.0
192.168.172.0
192.168.173.0
192.168.174.0
192.168.175.0
Which route address is the best summary of these network addresses?
A. 192.168.0.0/24
B. 192.168.171.128/3
C. 192.168.168.0/21
D. 192.168.175.0/3
E. 192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What design requirement is necessary for campus network access layer switching?
A. high cost per port
B. high availability
C. high scalability
D. high performance
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the nearest content server?
A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit
200-310 dumps
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay
WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer
requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router. What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured.
B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue.
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface.
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface.
Correct Answer: C

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MB2-704 Questions & Answers

Vendor: Microsoft

Certifications: MSS: Dynamics CRM 2013

Exam Name: Microsoft Dynamics CRM Application

Exam Code: MB2-704

Total Questions: 89 Q&As

Last Updated: Feb 05, 2017

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the agreement you set up with this customer.
You need to configure an entitlement.
What should you do?
A. Create an entitlement, with two entitlement channels for each type of support.
B. Create an entitlement with two service level agreements (SLAs) for each type of support.
C. Create an entitlement, and link to two templates for each type of support.
D. Create an entitlement, and link to two cases for each type of support. OC
Answer: A
Explanation:

MB2-704 dumps NO.2 What is required to view a Dynamic Excel report?
A. Save the Advanced Find query in Microsoft Dynamics CRM.
B. Have system administrator rights.
C. Create the export from a System View.
D. Have Outlook Client installed.
Answer: D

210-451 exam QUESTION 41
When adding an IP Station type 96xx, which statement is true regarding the port field?
A. It is automatically populated by the system as IP .
B. It must be populated as “SOOOXX”
C. It must be populated with an available port on an MM712 or TN2214
D. It must be populated with an available port on the LAN switch.
Correct Answer: A

 

 

MB2-704 dumps QUESTION 42
Consider the ARS Digit Conversion Table and ARS Digit Analysis Table shown in the exhibit.A user dials
the sequence 9602323501 in a system where the number 9 is assigned to Automatic Route Selection
(ARS) FAC.
What Route Pattern will route the call?
A. Route Pattern 1
B. Route Pattern 2
C. Route Pattern 3
D. Route Pattern 4

Correct Answer: D
MB2-704 dumps QUESTION 43
System functionality for a user is controlled by accessing one of the 16 class of service (COS) settings. What does the COS settings control?
A. the applications that a user can access and use
B. the capabilities or limits of calling privileges
C. the level of service that the user will get during peak usage time
D. the optional features that a user can access and use
Correct Answer: D
MB2-704 dumps  QUESTION 44
The monitor and display capacity commands can be sued to get a real-time status of the system using
Avaya Site Administration (ASA).
Which command and tool should you use to view the current load for a specific trunk group?

A. monitor load command using terminal emulation
B. monitor traffic command using terminal emulation
C. monitor traffic command using GEDI
D. display capacity using GEDI or terminal emulation

Correct Answer: B
MB2-704 dumps QUESTION 45
You are a technician responsible for an Avaya Aura Communication Manager Implementation and you need to connect your PC/laptop to the server for Initial setup and administration, as well as setup a PC/ laptop for the customer to do on-going administration. Which two methods are available for on-site access to the Communication Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. through any PC on the customer’s LAN connecting to the predefined, static IP addresses for the communication server or the service PC
B. through the service PC/laptop connected to the services port on the communication server using a crossover cable
C. through the service PC/laptop connected to the services port on the communication server using a USB cable
D. through the service PC/laptop connected to the SAL (secure access link) interface on the communication server using a crossover cable

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 46
Which two Fields and Settings must be verified on the system-parameters customer-options form when adding 46xx or 96xx type telephones? (Choose two)
A. Maximum Concurrently Registered IP Stations greater than “0”
B. Maximum Media Gateway VAL Sources greater than “0”
C. Maximum Off-PBX Telephones greater than “0”
D. IP Stations field in”y”
E. Digital Stations field In “y”

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 47
A user reports that when attempting to dial an external call to local number the system does nothing just
silence.
You interview the user as follows.
You: What happens if you longer after you dial your number? User: once I waited for about half a minute,
then I heard these tones that supported the something was wrong.
You: Did the sound stay on the same pitch or did it change pitches back and forth? User: Back and forth
one pitch higher than the other.
You: OK, that helps.What did you dial to get an outside line? User: Nine (9)
You: Thank you, I appreciate the information, I will get back with you shortly.
With reference to the scenario described in the exhibit, which statement most accurately describes the situation?
A. The user should have been able to complete the call as dialed
B. The system must be re-administered to correct the situation
C. After dialing “9” the user should have dialed more digits, then the external call would have completed
D. The user did not dial the correct access code to make an external call

Correct Answer: D

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 . Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices part 1 (ICND1) 100-105
 . Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices part 2 (ICND2) 200-105
 . Cisco Networking Associate (CCNA 200-125
 . The current ICND1 100-101 exam is replaced by the ICDN1 100-105 exam
. Last day to submit the ICND1 100-101 exam : August 20, 2016
. The current ICND2 exam 200-101 is replaced by the ICND2 exam 200-105
 . Last day to submit the ICND2 200-101 Exam: September 24, 2016
 . The current CCNA exam 200-120 is replaced by the CCNA 200-125 exam
 . Last day to submit the CCNA 200-120 exam : August 20, 2016

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Cisco 200-125 Dumps Question Answer

Question 1 

DRAG DROP
Refer to the exhibit. PC_1 is exchanging packets with the FTP server. Consider the packets as they leave RouterB interface Fa0/1 towards Router
A. Drag the correct frame and packet addresses to their place in the table.

 200-125 PDF

Answer:
Source Mac Address    Destnaton Mac Address    Source IP address    Destnaton MAC
address
MAC 0000.0c89.3333    MAC 0000.0c89.9999     IP 172.16.34.250     IP 172.16.21.7

QUESTION 8
When a Mac OS X v10.3 administrator user attempts to drag a file to the Applications folder, a message tells him, “The item File.app could not be moved because applicatiosn cannot be modified.” To correct this situation the administrator user should _____________.
A. Reinstall Mac OS X
B. Log in with the Master Password
C. Restart the computer and log in again
D. Click the Repair Permissions button in Disk Utility

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 9
Using the Printer Setup Utility in Mac OS X v10.3, how do you enable printing to a printer Shared by a computer with a Windows operating system?
A. Click Add, choose IP from the pop-up menu, select the Windows printer from the list, and click Add.
B. Click Add, choose Windows Printing from the pop-up menu, type in the printer address and queue name, and click Add.
C. Click Add, choose Windows Printing from the pop-up menu, choose LPD/LPR from the pop-up menu, select the Windows printer from the list, and click Add.
D. Click Add, choose Windows Printing from the pop-up menu, choose the correct workgroup from the Workgroups pop-up menu, select the printer from the list, and click Add.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 10
To allow other Mac OS X v10.3 users on the network to access a USB printer connected to your Macintosh, you can __________.
A. Start Print Service in Mac OS X server.
B. Enable Network Printing in Print Setup Utility
C. Add a network print queue in Print Setup Utility.
D. Enable AppleTalk in the Network pane of System Preferences.
E. Select the option to Share my printers with other computers in the Print & Fax pane of System Preferences.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 11
How do you configure Mac OS X v10.3 to print to a networked IP printer?
A. In the Printer Setup Utility, click on Add, choose IP Printing from the pop-up, menu, enter the IP address of the printer, and click Add.
B. In the Printer Setup Utility, click on Add, choose IP from the pop-up menu, select the printer from the list, and click Add.
C. Open the Choose, select the LaserWrite printer driver icon, and select the printer you want to configure.
D. Open the printer you wish to configure from the list of printers in the /Library/Printers/PPDs folder

Correct Answer: A  200-105 dumps

 

QUESTION 12
When printing from the Classic Environment, you can use the _______ to select the printer.
A. Chooser
B. Printer Setup Utility
C. Mac OS X v10.3 OS 9 Print Tools
D. Printers control panel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 13
To set up your computer that has Mac OS X v10.3to receive faxes, in the Print & Fax pane of System Preferences, _________.
A. Click the Start Faxing button.
B. Click the Faxing button, then click the “Receive faxes on this computer” checkbox.
C. Click the Faxing button, then select your fax modem from the list of available fax modems.
D. Click the Set Up Printing and Faxing button, click the Add button, then select your fax modem from the list of available fax modems.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
About which three system properties will System Profiler provide information? (Choose three.)
A. Installed PCI cards
B. Default network printer
C. Configured share points
D. Connected USB devices
E. Connected FireWire devices
F. Status of personal file sharing

Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 15
Which is the requirement when initially configuring a Bluetooth device, such as a cell phone, to pair with a computer running Mac OS X v10.3?
A. The computer or the device must be set up to be Discoverable.
B. The computer and the device must have the sleep function disabled.
C. The computer and the device must be within line of sight of each other.
D. The computer or the device must be set to Require Network Authentication.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
The Universal Access pane in System Preferences allows you to __________________.
A. Configure the screen to zoom in and out.
B. Turn speech recognition on and off.
C. Create new keyboard shortcuts.
D. Configure a USB tablet.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 31
Which changes in context-aware location services using the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 have the greatest impact to reduce the database size?
A. restricting to a single location device type
B. restricting the number of devices that are being tracked
C. restricting the history archive
D. scheduled database cleanup
E. scheduled backup

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
How are licenses purchased regarding the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 for Cisco wireless client tracking, Cisco RFID tracking, and AeroScout RFID tracking?
A. Three separate Cisco purchased licenses are used for wireless client tracking, RFID tags, and the AeroScout location engine.
B. Two separate Cisco purchased licenses are used for wireless client tracking and RFID tags. Additionally, a separate license purchased from AeroScout for the location engine is required.
C. A single Cisco purchased license is used for wireless client tracking, RFID tags, and the AeroScout location engine.
D. A single Cisco purchased license is used for wireless client tracking and RFID tags. Additionally, a separate license purchased from AeroScout for the location engine is required.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which two statements correctly describe implementing RFID tags based on RSSI and TDoA location in Cisco Unified Wireless Network v7.0? (Choose two.)
A. Only one tag engine can be installed and be operational in a Cisco 3300 Series MSE.
B. Two tag engines can be installed, but only one can be operational at any time in a Cisco MSE.
C. Separate tag engines can be installed and run concurrently for RSSI and TDoA in a Cisco MSE.
D. Basic RSSI and TDoA location can be performed by Cisco APs.
E. RSSI tag location can be performed by Cisco APs, but partner sensors are required for TDoA tag location.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 34
What is the list of Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 network location service elements that can be individually enabled or disabled for device tracking and quantity limitation?
A. Clients and Tags only
B. Clients, Rogue APs, Interferers, and Tags only
C. Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, and Tags only
D. Wired Clients, Wireless Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, and Tags only
E. Wired Clients, Wireless Clients, Rogue APs, Rogue Clients, Interferers, Active Tags, and Choke Point Tags

Correct Answer: D   100-101 exam
QUESTION 35
What is the default username and password for communication between Cisco WCS and the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. cisco and cisco
B. Cisco and Cisco
C. admin and admin
D. root and admin
E. root and password
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which two methods can be used to upgrade the Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0? (Choose two.)
A. booting a CD that is formatted with an ISO image
B. using the Cisco WCS browser interface
C. using the Cisco MSE browser interface
D. using the Cisco MSE console CLI
E. using the TFTP bootstrap with a predefined filename

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 37
Which statement describes normal Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 maintenance?
A. Using the Cisco WCS interface, stop Cisco MSE, run the defragment database, and start Cisco MSE.
B. Using the Cisco WCS interface, run the defragment database.
C. Using the Cisco MSE CLI, stop Cisco MSE, run the defragment database, and start Cisco MSE.
D. Using the Cisco MSE CLI, run the defragment database.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
How is password recovery performed on a Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0?
A. Interrupt the boot sequence and modify the BIOS bootloader.
B. Interrupt the boot sequence and modify the GRUB bootloader.
C. Reboot using a CD that is imaged with an ISO bootable file to reimage Cisco MSE.
D. Use the emergency TFTP bootable image.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
The Cisco 3300 Series MSE v7.0 has been manually configured for passwords, IP address, gateway, and hostname. The Cisco WCS v7.0 can ping Cisco MSE but is not able to add the MSE context-aware services. What is the most likely issue?
A. NTP is not configured on Cisco MSE.
B. Network services were not started on Cisco MSE.
C. MSE services were not started on Cisco MSE.
D. Context-aware services were not installed on Cisco MSE.
E. Context-aware services were not licensed on MSE.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which access points can be deployed with wireless mesh using version 7.0.116.0 software?
A. outdoor Cisco 1500 Series APs only
B. outdoor and indoor APs that are not capable of 802.11n or CleanAir
C. outdoor and indoor APs that are capable of 802.11n but not CleanAir
D. outdoor and indoor APs that are capable of 802.11n and CleanAir

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 41
In which two types of deployment scenarios would a wireless mesh network be most appropriate? (Choose two.)

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QUESTION 10
Setting up a separate storage pool to store both metadata and journal data can ________.
A. complicate user quota configuration
B. improve I/O throughput for user data
C. increase free disk space on the primary metadata controller
D. cause data loss due to multiple files having the same address

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
What application should you use to mount an Xsan volume on a client computer?
A. Finder
B. Disk Utility
C. RAID Admin
D. Xsan Admin

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Creating multiple storage pools within an Xsan volume can help ________.
A. increase the bandwidth of the private LAN
B. decrease the number of RAID arrays needed
C. improve data transfer efficiency to the volume
D. improve performance of LUN mapping and masking

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 13
Which Xsan volume configuration will demonstrate the best performance in a video production environment?
A. an Xsan volume with a single storage pool, in which all LUNs correspond to the same RAID controller.
B. an Xsan volume with multiple storage pools, in which all LUNs correspond to the same RAID controller
C. an Xsan volume with a single storage pool, in which each LUN corresponds to a unique RAID controller
D. an Xsan volume with multiple storage pools, in which each LUN corresponds to a unique RAID controller

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
You have created a nested folder and want to give it an affinity for a particular storage pool. Its parent folder has an existing affinity for a different storage pool. What tool should you use?
A. cvdbset
B. cvmkdir
C. cvadmin
D. Xsan Admin

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which statement is true when you combine LUNs of different sizes in a single storage pool?
A. Some storage space will be wasted.
B. The storage pool’s efficiency is increased.
C. You must assign an affinity to the resulting storage pool.
D. You must optimize block size according to the smallest LUN in the storage pool.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
You administer an Xsan volume in an environment that includes Windows computers running StorNext, and Mac OS X computers running Xsan. You want to use access control lists (ACLs) on your Xsan volume. Which statement must be TRUE for you to accomplish your goal?
A. All clients must be bound to the same directory domain.
B. Windows clients must be bound to the Macintosh Open Directory master.
C. .Macintosh clients must be bound to the Windows primary domain controller (PDC).

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Which application lets you monitor the status of the physical disks within an Xserve RAID LUN?
A. Disk Utility
B. RAID Admin
C. Xsan Admin
D. Server Monitor

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18
What application should you use to create LUNs on an Xserve RAID?
A. Disk Utility
B. RAID Admin
C. Xsan Admin
D. Server Admin

Correct Answer: B  700-505 dumps

QUESTION 19
You want your Xsan file system to use access control lists (ACLs) on a volume. What application should you use to enable ACLs on the volume?
A. Xsan Admin
B. RAID Admin
C. Server Admin
D. Workgroup Manager

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
You want to add a storage pool to an existing Xsan volume. Which TWO steps should you complete before you add the storage pool?
A. Stop the Xsan volume.
B. Initialize the storage pool.
C. Extend the maximum Xsan volume size.
D. Unmount the Xsan volume from all nodes.
E. Mount the Xsan volume on the primary metadata controller.

Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
What are the recommended POSIX permissions for a web folder being shared through WebDAV?
A. user – www group – www user/group/other – 775
B. user – root group – wheel user/group/other – 775
C. user – administrator group – web user/group/other – 744
D. user – administrator group – everyone user/group/other – 750

Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
What Common Criteria tool lets you specify which log events to display?
A. Audit Log Viewer
B. /usr/sbin/ccfilter
C. /usr/sbin/auditfilter
D. /usr/sbin/auditreduce

Correct Answer: D Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
What is the result of adding the line below to the default slapd.conf file?
disallow bind_anon
A. All users must authenticate to connect to servers.
B. Clients will be required to provide authentication to use LDAP.
C. Nothing changes because that is the default setting for Open Directory.
D. Anonymous BIND (Berkeley Internet Name Daemon) will no longer be used for this server.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 4
You have first enabled Personal File Sharing on your computer, and then turned on the built-in firewall. How does the default behavior of the Mac OS X firewall affect file sharing on your computer?
A. No computer can connect to your computer via AFP.
B. Any computer can connect to your computer via AFP.
C. Only computers on the local subnet can connect to your computer via AFP.
D. Only computers with a local Bonjour address can connect to your computer via AFP.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Which command will force users on local computers to create passwords of at least 12 characters, whether or not they are connected to a directory server?
A. pwpolicy -l /NetInfo/DefaultLocalNode -a root -setpassword minChars=12
B. passwd -l /NetInfo/DefaultLocalNode -a root -setglobalpolicy minChars=12
C. passwd -n /NetInfo/DefaultLocalNode -a administrator -setpassword minChars=12
D. pwpolicy -n /NetInfo/DefaultLocalNode -a administrator -setglobalpolicy minChars=12

Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Which file do you configure to enable Common Criteria auditing on startup?
A. /etc/audit
B. /etc/hostconfig
C. /etc/security/cc_audit
D. /etc/security/audit_warn

Correct Answer: B Section: (none)Explanation
Explanation/Reference:  210-451 exam
QUESTION 7
When using certificates, what role does a Certificate Authority (CA) play?
A. A CA must be present on the server before SSL can be enabled.
B. A CA is a trusted third party that ensures the identity of the server.
C. A CA determines what ciphers are available for symmetric encryption.
D. SSL routes traffic through the CA to verify the identity of the client and server.

Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation
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